Exam 4: Pharmacogenetics
Exam 1: The Nursing Process and Patient-Centered Care15 Questions
Exam 2: Drug Development and Ethical Considerations23 Questions
Exam 3: Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Pharmacogenetics41 Questions
Exam 4: Pharmacogenetics9 Questions
Exam 5: Complementary and Alternative Therapies13 Questions
Exam 6: Pediatric Considerations17 Questions
Exam 7: Geriatric Considerations14 Questions
Exam 8: Drugs of Abuse15 Questions
Exam 9: Safety and Quality16 Questions
Exam 10: Drug Administration14 Questions
Exam 11: Drug Calculations22 Questions
Exam 12: Fluid Volume and Electrolytes22 Questions
Exam 13: Vitamin and Mineral Replacement20 Questions
Exam 14: Nutritional Support19 Questions
Exam 15: Adrenergic Agonists and Antagonists16 Questions
Exam 16: Cholinergic Agonists and Antagonists17 Questions
Exam 17: Stimulants12 Questions
Exam 18: Depressants18 Questions
Exam 19: Antiseizure Drugs20 Questions
Exam 20: Drugs for Parkinson Disease and Alzheimer Disease17 Questions
Exam 21: Drugs for Neuromuscular Disorders and Muscle Spasms16 Questions
Exam 22: Antipsychotics and Anxiolytics18 Questions
Exam 23: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilizers19 Questions
Exam 24: Antiinflammatories18 Questions
Exam 25: Analgesics17 Questions
Exam 26: Antibacterials48 Questions
Exam 27: Antituberculars, Antifungals, and Antivirals23 Questions
Exam 28: Peptides, Antimalarials, and Anthelmintics9 Questions
Exam 29: Hiv- and Aids-Related Drugs11 Questions
Exam 30: Transplant Drugs5 Questions
Exam 31: Vaccines11 Questions
Exam 32: Anticancer Drugs10 Questions
Exam 33: Targeted Therapies to Treat Cancer9 Questions
Exam 34: Biologic Response Modifiers11 Questions
Exam 35: Upper Respiratory Disorders11 Questions
Exam 36: Lower Respiratory Disorders15 Questions
Exam 37: Cardiac Glycosides, Antianginals, and Antidysrhythmics19 Questions
Exam 38: Diuretics11 Questions
Exam 39: Antihypertensives14 Questions
Exam 40: Anticoagulants, Antiplatelets, and Thrombolytics18 Questions
Exam 41: Antihyperlipidemics and Peripheral Vasodilators12 Questions
Exam 42: Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders18 Questions
Exam 43: Antiulcer Drugs14 Questions
Exam 44: Eye and Ear Disorders10 Questions
Exam 45: Dermatologic Disorders12 Questions
Exam 46: Pituitary, Thyroid, Parathyroid, and Adrenal Disorders21 Questions
Exam 47: Antidiabetics18 Questions
Exam 48: Urinary Disorders14 Questions
Exam 49: Pregnancy and Preterm Labor16 Questions
Exam 50: Labor, Delivery, and Postpartum13 Questions
Exam 51: Neonatal and Newborn5 Questions
Exam 52: Womens Reproductive Health17 Questions
Exam 53: Mens Reproductive Health11 Questions
Exam 54: Sexually Transmitted Infections7 Questions
Exam 55: Adult and Pediatric Emergency Drugs11 Questions
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The physician has ordered UGT1A1 gene testing for a patient with colon cancer. The nurse recognizes that which of the following drugs can result in severe diarrhea and neutropenia in persons with a specific UGT1A1 gene variant?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
D
Which of the following best describes pharmacogenetics?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
B
A patient is diagnosed with Stevens-Johnson syndrome and the provider thinks this is related to an HLA B*1502 variant that resulted in drug toxicity. The nurse would know that which of the following medications is likely to blame:
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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(87)
Correct Answer:
B
The labeling for clopidogrel discusses pharmacogenomic testing for genetic variation in which of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) was enacted to:
(Multiple Choice)
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Codeine and tramadol are prodrugs that require metabolism by which enzyme prior to providing analgesic relief?
(Multiple Choice)
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The FDA recommends genetic testing of which of the following for patients prior to initiating abacavir due to a risk of potentially fatal multiorgan hypersensitivity in 6-10% of users?
(Multiple Choice)
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There are many legal and ethical issues related to pharmacogenomics. Which of the following are questions not related to privacy?
(Multiple Choice)
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