Exam 51: Accountants' Duties and Liability
Exam 1: Legal Heritage and the Digital Age80 Questions
Exam 2: Courts and Jurisdiction80 Questions
Exam 3: Judicial,Alternative,and E-Dispute Resolution80 Questions
Exam 4: Constitutional Law for Business and E-Commerce81 Questions
Exam 5: Intentional Torts and Negligence81 Questions
Exam 6: Product and Strict Liability80 Questions
Exam 7: Intellectual Property and Cyber Piracy80 Questions
Exam 8: Criminal Law and Cyber Crimes86 Questions
Exam 9: Nature of Traditional and E-Contracts78 Questions
Exam 10: Agreement80 Questions
Exam 11: Consideration and Promissory Estoppel75 Questions
Exam 12: Capacity and Legality82 Questions
Exam 13: Genuineness of Assent and Undue Influence80 Questions
Exam 14: Statute of Frauds and Equitable Exceptions80 Questions
Exam 15: Third-Party Rights and Discharge80 Questions
Exam 16: Remedies for Breach of Traditional and E-Contracts80 Questions
Exam 17: E-Commerce and Digital Law80 Questions
Exam 18: Formation of Sales and Lease Contracts82 Questions
Exam 19: Title to Goods and Risk of Loss81 Questions
Exam 20: Remedies for Breach of Sales and Lease Contracts80 Questions
Exam 21: Warranties83 Questions
Exam 22: Creation of Negotiable Instruments80 Questions
Exam 23: Holder in Due Course and Transferability82 Questions
Exam 24: Liability, Defenses, and Discharge83 Questions
Exam 25: Banks, E-Money, and Financial Reform80 Questions
Exam 26: Credit,Mortgages,and Debtor's Rights90 Questions
Exam 27: Secured Transactions and E-Filing80 Questions
Exam 28: Bankruptcy and Reorganization79 Questions
Exam 29: Agency Formation and Termination87 Questions
Exam 30: Liability of Principals, Agents, and Independent Contractors80 Questions
Exam 31: Employment, Worker Protection, and Immigration Law81 Questions
Exam 32: Labor Law and Collective Bargaining79 Questions
Exam 33: Equal Opportunity in Employment78 Questions
Exam 34: Small Business, Entrepreneurship, and General Partnerships79 Questions
Exam 35: Limited Partnerships and Special Partnerships81 Questions
Exam 36: Corporate Formation and Financing95 Questions
Exam 37: Corporate Governance and the Sarbanes-Oxley Act89 Questions
Exam 38: Corporate Acquisitions and Multinational Corporations80 Questions
Exam 39: Limited Liability Companies and Limited Liability Partnerships81 Questions
Exam 40: Franchises and Special Forms of Businesses84 Questions
Exam 41: Investor Protection, E-Securities, and Wall Street Reform81 Questions
Exam 42: Ethics and Social Responsibility of Business83 Questions
Exam 43: Administrative Law and Regulatory Agencies81 Questions
Exam 44: Consumer Protection and Product Safety81 Questions
Exam 45: Environmental Protection81 Questions
Exam 46: Antitrust Law and Unfair Trade Practices89 Questions
Exam 47: Personal Property and Bailment89 Questions
Exam 48: Real Property98 Questions
Exam 49: Landlord-Tenant Law and Land Use Regulation82 Questions
Exam 50: Insurance81 Questions
Exam 51: Accountants' Duties and Liability83 Questions
Exam 52: Wills Trusts and Estates90 Questions
Exam 53: Family Law85 Questions
Exam 54: International and World Trade Law81 Questions
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Limited partners are personally liable for the debts and obligations of the LLP.
(True/False)
4.8/5
(87)
Which of the following legislations makes it a criminal offense to willfully make any untrue statement of material fact in a registration statement filed with the SEC?
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(85)
Ordinary negligence by an accountant is not a violation of Section 10(b)and Rule 10b-5.
(True/False)
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(76)
Which of the following is true of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board?
(Multiple Choice)
4.7/5
(84)
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act makes it lawful for an accounting firm to simultaneously provide audit and certain nonaudit services to a public company if the firm is registered.
(True/False)
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(86)
When an accountant has behaved negligently causing damage to a third party, the third party ________.
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following legislations provides for both civil and criminal penalties, including up to recovering treble damages, for securities fraud by accountants?
(Multiple Choice)
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(72)
Registered accounting firms that audit more than 100 public companies annually are subject to inspection and review by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB)once a year.
(True/False)
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(75)
A qualified opinion is the most favorable opinion that an accountant can render.
(True/False)
4.7/5
(78)
The accountant-client privilege is a law that entails that ________.
(Multiple Choice)
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(73)
________ is a law that prohibits any manipulative or deceptive practice in connection with the purchase or sale of a security.
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following can be used by an accountant to counter liability imposed under Section 11(a)of the Securities Act of 1933?
(Multiple Choice)
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Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAPs)specify the methods and procedures that are to be used by public accountants when conducting external audits of company financial statements.
(True/False)
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A due diligence defense cannot be asserted by an accountant against the civil liabilities of Section 11(a)of the Securities Act of 1933.
(True/False)
4.9/5
(74)
A private civil RICO based on securities fraud can only be brought once the defendant has been convicted for the crime.
(True/False)
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(72)
An adverse opinion is reflective of a material misstatement or discrepancy in a company's financial records.
(True/False)
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An unqualified opinion would entail that the company's financial statements have some deviation from GAAPs.
(True/False)
5.0/5
(71)
Which of the following statements is true with regard to accountants?
(Multiple Choice)
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The ________ Act of 1976 specifically imposes penalties and fines for the willful understatement of a client's tax liability.
(Multiple Choice)
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________ is a state law that provides that an accountant's work papers cannot be used against a client in a court action.
(Multiple Choice)
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