A 53-Year-Old Man Is Brought to the Emergency Department by His

A 53-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife for the evaluation of a progressively generalized headache that started suddenly 2 hours ago. He has not had any recent falls and was sitting in a chair when he lost consciousness. He has hypertension. Current medications include amlodipine, a daily multivitamin, and acetaminophen. Noncontrast CT scan of the head reveals diffuse hyperdensity in the subarachnoid space.  CT angiography reveals a ruptured anterior communicating artery aneurysm.  The patient is taken to the operating room for surgical clipping and transferred to the intensive care unit. Five days later, he has new-onset focal weakness of his left lower extremity. Repeat CT scan shows no significant changes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's neurological deterioration?

A) Arterial thrombosis
B) Embolism
C) Hydrocephalus
D) Rebleeding
E) Vascular inflammation
F) Vasospasm

Correct Answer:

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