A 32-Year-Old African American Male Is Diagnosed with Acute Prostatitis

A 32-year-old African American male is diagnosed with acute prostatitis.  He has no significant past medical history.  He begins treatment with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, but subsequently develops dark urine and anemia with a high reticulocyte count.  Which of the following is the best explanation for the observed findings?

A) Antibody-mediated erythrocyte destruction
B) Hereditary erythrocyte membrane defect
C) Hereditary erythrocyte enzyme deficiency
D) Hemoglobin structure abnormality
E) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

Correct Answer:

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