A 45-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office Due to a 1

A 45-year-old man comes to the office due to a 1 year history of abdominal pain and greasy stools.  He has also noticed a 7-kg (15.4-lb) weight loss over the past 6 months.  Medical history is significant for several years of joint pain in his knees and wrists but is otherwise unremarkable.  The patient does not use tobacco or alcohol.  After an initial workup, a duodenal biopsy is performed.  Microscopic examination shows numerous macrophages in the lamina propria filled with inclusions positive for periodic acid-Schiff stain.  Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

A) Aminosalicylic acid derivatives
B) Antibiotics
C) Enzyme supplementation
D) Modified diet
E) Surgical resection

Correct Answer:

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