A 54-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office with Abdominal Pain

A 54-year-old man comes to the office with abdominal pain, chronic diarrhea, and recent weight loss.  He has had episodic abdominal pain in the past, but lately it has become persistent and worsens after eating.  The patient does not use tobacco or illicit drugs but does consume alcohol regularly.  An upright abdominal x-ray reveals calcifications in the epigastric area.  Which of the following is the most likely cause of his diarrhea?

A) Bile salt malabsorption
B) Digestive enzyme deficiency
C) Elevated portal venous pressure
D) Excessive gastrin production
E) Immune-mediated enteropathy
F) Nutrient absorption interference by alcohol

Correct Answer:

Verified

Unlock this answer now
Get Access to more Verified Answers free of charge

Access For Free