Exam 15: Third-Party Rights and Discharge
Exam 1: Legal Heritage and the Digital Age90 Questions
Exam 2: Courts and Jurisdiction83 Questions
Exam 3: Judicial, Alternative, and E-Dispute Resolution101 Questions
Exam 4: Constitutional Law for Business and E-Commerce88 Questions
Exam 5: Intentional Torts and Negligence84 Questions
Exam 6: Product and Strict Liability86 Questions
Exam 7: Intellectual Property and Cyber Piracy84 Questions
Exam 8: Criminal Law and Cyber Crime88 Questions
Exam 9: Nature of Traditional and E-Contracts81 Questions
Exam 10: Agreement80 Questions
Exam 11: Consideration and Promissory Estoppel75 Questions
Exam 12: Capacity and Legality83 Questions
Exam 13: Genuineness of Assent and Undue Influence82 Questions
Exam 14: Statute of Frauds and Equitable Exceptions82 Questions
Exam 15: Third-Party Rights and Discharge83 Questions
Exam 16: Remedies for Breach of Traditional and E-Contracts84 Questions
Exam 17: Digital Law and E-Commerce80 Questions
Exam 18: Formation of Sales and Lease Contracts83 Questions
Exam 19: Title to Goods and Risk of Loss83 Questions
Exam 20: Remedies for Breach of Sales and Lease Contracts80 Questions
Exam 21: Warranties86 Questions
Exam 22: Creation of Negotiable Instruments80 Questions
Exam 23: Holder in Due Course and Transferability82 Questions
Exam 24: Liability, Defenses, and Discharge83 Questions
Exam 25: Banking System and Electronic Financial Transactions80 Questions
Exam 26: Credit, Mortgages, and Debtors Rights93 Questions
Exam 27: Secured Transactions81 Questions
Exam 28: Bankruptcy and Reorganization86 Questions
Exam 29: Agency Formation and Termination86 Questions
Exam 30: Liability of Principals, Agents, and Independent Contractors85 Questions
Exam 31: Employment, Worker Protection, and Immigration Law86 Questions
Exam 32: Labor Law79 Questions
Exam 33: Equal Opportunity in Employment84 Questions
Exam 34: Small Business, Entrepreneurship, and General Partnerships79 Questions
Exam 35: Limited Partnerships and Special Partnerships83 Questions
Exam 36: Corporate Formation and Financing100 Questions
Exam 37: Corporate Governance and the Sarbanes-Oxley Act92 Questions
Exam 38: Corporate Acquisitions and Multinational Corporations80 Questions
Exam 39: Limited Liability Companies and Limited Liability Partnerships87 Questions
Exam 40: Franchise and Special Forms of Business84 Questions
Exam 41: Investor Protection and E-Securities Transactions88 Questions
Exam 42: Ethics and Social Responsibility of Business83 Questions
Exam 43: Administrative Law and Regulatory Agencies82 Questions
Exam 44: Consumer Protection and Product Safety75 Questions
Exam 45: Environmental Protection81 Questions
Exam 46: Antitrust Law and Unfair Trade Practices88 Questions
Exam 47: Personal Property, Real Property, and Insurance89 Questions
Exam 48: Real Property98 Questions
Exam 49: Landlord-Tenant Law and Land Use Regulation80 Questions
Exam 50: Insurance81 Questions
Exam 51: Accountants Duties and Liability83 Questions
Exam 52: Wills, Trusts, and Estates89 Questions
Exam 53: Family Law85 Questions
Exam 54: International and World Trade Law81 Questions
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A party who is owed a right under a contract is called an obligor.
(True/False)
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KnockKnock is a manufacturer of stainless steel locks that are well-known for their durability. The company contacts a new stainless steel supplier and enters into a supply contract. The contract states that KnockKnock would purchase only if the steel from the supplier was high-grade Type 102 stainless steel. This is an instance of a ________.
(Multiple Choice)
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In the United States, sales contracts and contracts for the payment of money are not assignable.
(True/False)
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The reasonable person test is used to judge contracts involving mechanical fitness.
(True/False)
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Approval clauses require that the ________ approve any assignment of a contract.
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following refers to an agreement that substitutes a new party for one of the original contracting parties and relieves the existing party of liability on the contract?
(Multiple Choice)
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Where there is a valid delegation of duties but the delegatee has not assumed the duties under a contract, the delegation is called a(n) ________.
(Multiple Choice)
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Howard is injured by Penny in a car accident, caused due to Penny's negligence. Which of the following statements holds true for Howard's right to assign?
(Multiple Choice)
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A reasonable person test is a subjective test that applies to contracts involving personal taste and comfort.
(True/False)
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Which of the following is used to resolve a case where the obligee fraudulently makes successive assignments of the same right to a number of assignees, providing that the first assignee to give notice to the obligor prevails?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following phrases describes the term covenant?
(Multiple Choice)
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A party who owes a duty of performance under a contract is called the ________.
(Multiple Choice)
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What does the English rule for successive assignments provide?
(Multiple Choice)
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Privity of contract refers to the transfer of contractual rights by an obligee to another party.
(True/False)
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Nonperformance of a covenant is not considered a breach of contract because a covenant is an unconditional promise.
(True/False)
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James hires Franco for a painting job. Their contract explicitly states that Franco's employment can be terminated if he is employed by another party during the contract period. Two weeks into the job, James finds out that Franco is also working for a painting agency two blocks away and terminates his employment. This is an instance of ________.
(Multiple Choice)
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A substituted contract substitutes a new party for one of the original contracting parties.
(True/False)
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An assignment and delegation occurs when there is a transfer of both rights and duties under a contract.
(True/False)
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Which of the following is an illustration of the possession of tangible token rule?
(Multiple Choice)
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In concurrent conditions, each party's duty to perform is conditioned on the other party's duty to perform.
(True/False)
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