Exam 10: Credit Risk I: Individual Loan Risk

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Term structure of credit risk approach models are also known as:

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A

The term 'spot loan' refers to a loan:

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D

Assume that i1 = 11% and i2 = 12%, and that k1 = 14.50% and k2 = 16.50%.What is the expected probability of repayment on the one-year corporate bonds in one year's time (round to two decimals)?

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D

Assume a $500 000 loan has a duration of 2.5 years.The current interest rate level is 10% and a sudden change in the credit premium of 1% is expected.Further assume that the one-year income on the loan is $2500.What is the loan's RAROC (round to two decimals)?

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The estimate of loan (or capital) risk (∆L) can be calculated as follows: DL * L * [∆R / (1+R)].

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Which of the following statements is true?

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By selecting and combining different economic and financial borrower characteristics, an FI manager may be able to improve the pricing of default risk.

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Consider the following scenario: an FI charges a 0.5% loan origination fee and imposes an 8% compensating balance requirement to be held as non-interest-bearing demand deposits.It further sets aside reserves held at the central bank.The value of these reserves is 10% of deposits.The base lending rate is 9% and the credit risk premium for a specific borrower is 3%.What is the ROA on the loan?

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Consider the following data of a prospective borrower. Current assets \ 120000 Current liabilities \ 60000 Total assets \ 500000 Market value of equity \ 50000 Book value of equity \ 60000 Retained earnings \ 12000 Interest expense \ 20000 Profit before tax \ 200000 Sales revenue \ 1000000 What is this company's Z-score ?

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Compensating balance is a proportion of:

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The term disintermediation refers to the process in which firms access:

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The key factors entering into the credit decision include:

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Which of the following statements is true?

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Consider the case of a simple one-period framework.If i = 12.30% and k = 13.87%, what is the risk premium on the corporate loan (round to two decimals)?

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Models of credit risk measurement include:

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Banks have been partially responsible for big corporate collapses such as Enron.

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Assume the interest rate in the market for one-year zero-coupon government bonds is i = 7.5% and the rate for one-year zero-coupon grade BB bonds is k = 11.8%.What is the implied probability of default on the corporate bond (round to two decimals)?

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Non-performing loans are loans characterised by some type of default-from non-payment to delays in payment of interest and/or principal.

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Linear discriminant models rely on a company's forecasted financial data so that the FI manager is able to assess the borrower's future payment ability.

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What are the major ideas behind KMV's Credit Monitor model?

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