Exam 12: Operating Exposure

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Purely domestic firms will be at a disadvantage to MNEs in the event of market disequilibria because:

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Currency swaps are exclusively for periods of time under one year.

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After being introduced in the 1980s,currency swaps have remained a relatively insignificant financial derivative instrument.

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For a firm that competes internationally to sell its products,a depreciation of its domestic currency relative to markets where the firm exports goods,should eventually result in ________ sales at home and ________ sales abroad,other things equal.

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Which of the following is NOT an example of a form of political risk that might be avoided or reduced by foreign exchange risk management?

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Recently the British Pound suffered an unexpected depreciation in value.Which of the following actions being considered by Coventry Furniture of London,a purely domestic furniture manufacturer and retailer,would be considered a highly unlikely response to the depreciation of the pound?

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The particular strategy of trying to offset stable inflows of cash from one country with outflows of cash in the same currency is known as:

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The goal of operating exposure analysis is to identify strategic operating techniques the firm might adopt to enhance value in the face of unanticipated exchange rate changes.

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Simpson Sign Company based in Frostbite Falls,Minnesota has a 6-month C$100,000 contract to complete sign work in Winnipeg,Manitoba,Canada.The current spot rate is $1.02/C$ and the forward rate is $1.01/C$.Under conditions of equilibrium,management would use ________ today when preparing operating budgets.

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NorthRim Inc.(NRI),imports extreme condition outdoor wear and equipment from The Allofit Territories Company (ATC)located in Canada.With the steady decline of the U.S dollar against the Canadian dollar NRI is finding a continued relationship with ATC to be an increasingly difficult proposition.In response to NRI's request,ATC has proposed the following risk-sharing arrangement.First,set the current spot rate as the base rate.As long as spot rates stay within 5% (up or down)NRI will pay at the base rate.Any rate outside of the 5% range,ATC will share equally with NRI the difference between the spot rate and the base rate.If NRI has a payable of C$100,000 due today and the current spot rate is C$1.17/$,how much does LBC owe in U.S.dollars?

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Diversifying the financing base means diversifying sales,location of production facilities,and raw material sources.

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Which of the following is NOT identified by your authors as a proactive management technique to reduce exposure to foreign exchange risk?

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Swap agreements are treated as line items on the balance sheet via U.S.accounting methods.

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When disequilibria in international markets occur,management can take advantage by:

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Which of the following is NOT an example of diversifying operations?

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________ exposure is far more important for the long-run health of a business than changes caused by ________ or ________ exposure.

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An MNE has a contract for a relatively predictable long-term inflow of Japanese yen that the firm chooses to hedge by seeking out potential suppliers in Japan.This hedging strategy is referred to as:

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Which one of the following management techniques is likely to best offset the risk of long-run exposure to receivables denominated in a particular foreign currency?

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Which of the following is NOT an example of an operating cash flow?

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Management must be able to predict disequilibria in international markets to take advantage of diversification strategies.

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