Exam 2: World Trade: An Overview
In the past half century,the developing countries have experienced major compositional shifts from exports of primary products (including agricultural and raw materials)to exports of manufactures.How might you explain this in terms of broad historical developments during this period?
Any discussion of the export experience of the developing countries must first clarify the problem of definitional inclusion.In particular,the exports of the (non-OECD)developing countries,has become increasingly dominated by the experience of a relatively small number of countries in South-East Asia,termed the New Industrialized Countries (NICs).Since they experienced both very rapid increases in their exports,and very rapid increases in the manufactured component of their exports,their experience alone may explain the bulk of the observed phenomenon.Many would exclude the NICs from the developing country category so as to be able to focus the discussion on a more representative sample of (the over 100)developing countries.More recently,a second wave of East Asian countries,notably including China have replicated the experience of the NICs,and this again muddies the water for one interested in focusing on the export experience of the increasingly heterogeneous category,developing countries.Another explanation of the growing dependence on manufactured exports on the part of the developing countries is the following:Since the consumer ( including industrial consumer)markets in OECD countries were rapidly shifting away from primary products,these markets were rapidly disappearing.
In addition,the world market for primary products was generally limited by low price and especially income elasticities;agricultural sectors tended to be highly and rigidly protected in potential OECD markets;and escalating effective tariff structures levied systematically large levels of protection against the primary exports of the developing countries;export success had to be pursued outside of the traditional primary exports of these countries.
Since World War II,the likelihood that foreign markets would gain importance to average exporters as a source of profits has
B
Since the period following World War II (the early 1950s),the proportion of most countries' production being used in some other country
B
Since World War II,the relative importance of raw materials,including oil,in total world trade
When comparing the composition of world trade in the early 20th century to the early 21st century,we find major compositional changes.These include a relative decline in trade in agricultural and primary-products (including raw materials).How would you explain this in terms of broad historical developments during this period?
In general,which of the following do NOT tend to increase trade between two countries?
In the current Post-Industrial economy,international trade in services (including banking and financial services)
The two neighbors of the United States do a lot more trade with the United States than European economies of equal size.
Approximately what percent of all world production of goods and services is exported to other countries?
Since World War II,the likelihood that the job of a new college graduate will be directly or indirectly affected by world trade
In the pre-World War I period,the United Kingdom exported mainly
According to the gravity model,a characteristic that tends to affect the probability of trade existing between any two countries is
Which of the following does NOT explain the extent of trade between Ireland and the U.S.?
In the pre-World War I period,the United Kingdom imported mainly
We see that the Netherlands,Belgium,and Ireland trade considerably more with the United States than with many other countries.
One of the major political developments of the past several decades is the growing size and economic/monetary integration of the European Union.What effect do you think this will have on international trade between countries?
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