Exam 34: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
Exam 1: Perioperative Education20 Questions
Exam 2: Foundations of Perioperative Patient Care Standards22 Questions
Exam 3: Legal, regulatory, and Ethical Issues22 Questions
Exam 4: The Perioperative Patient Care Team and Professional Credentialing14 Questions
Exam 5: The Surgical First Assistant12 Questions
Exam 6: Administration of Perioperative Patient Care Services19 Questions
Exam 7: The Patient: the Reason for Your Existence21 Questions
Exam 8: Perioperative Pediatrics37 Questions
Exam 9: Perioperative Geriatrics20 Questions
Exam 10: Physical Facilities19 Questions
Exam 11: Ambulatory Surgery Centers and Alternative Surgical Locations24 Questions
Exam 12: Care of the Perioperative Environment24 Questions
Exam 13: Potential Sources of Injury to the Caregiver and the Patient31 Questions
Exam 14: Surgical Microbiology and Antimicrobial Therapy26 Questions
Exam 15: Principles of Aseptic and Sterile Techniques32 Questions
Exam 16: Appropriate Attire, surgical Hand Hygiene, and Gowning and Gloving25 Questions
Exam 17: Decontamination and Disinfection27 Questions
Exam 18: Sterilization42 Questions
Exam 19: Surgical Instrumentation26 Questions
Exam 20: Specialized Surgical Equipment24 Questions
Exam 21: Preoperative Preparation of the Patient24 Questions
Exam 22: Diagnostics, specimens, and Oncologic Considerations40 Questions
Exam 23: Surgical Pharmacology16 Questions
Exam 24: Anesthesia: Techniques and Agents51 Questions
Exam 25: Coordinated Roles of the Scrub Person and the Circulating Nurse42 Questions
Exam 26: Positioning,prepping,and Draping the Patient43 Questions
Exam 27: Physiologic Maintenance and Monitoring of the Perioperative Patient30 Questions
Exam 28: Surgical Incisions, implants, and Wound Closure38 Questions
Exam 29: Wound Healing and Hemostasis29 Questions
Exam 30: Postoperative Patient Care11 Questions
Exam 31: Potential Perioperative Complications45 Questions
Exam 32: Endoscopy and Robotic-Assisted Surgery22 Questions
Exam 33: General Surgery36 Questions
Exam 34: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery47 Questions
Exam 35: Urologic Surgery42 Questions
Exam 36: Orthopedic Surgery36 Questions
Exam 37: Neurosurgery of the Brain and Peripheral Nerves27 Questions
Exam 38: Spinal Surgery17 Questions
Exam 39: Ophthalmic Surgery33 Questions
Exam 40: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery32 Questions
Exam 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery46 Questions
Exam 42: Thoracic Surgery23 Questions
Exam 43: Cardiac Surgery27 Questions
Exam 44: Vascular Surgery24 Questions
Exam 45: Organ Procurement and Transplantation22 Questions
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Which organ is removed in an anterior pelvic exenteration?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
B
Which is a reason a low transverse (Kerr)incision is made during a cesarean section?
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
D
What data should be assessed of a female patient before a surgical procedure?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
C
What two hormones help prepare the uterus for implantation of the fertilized egg?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which is a reason for performing a dilation and curettage (D&C)?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which is a reason an abdominal hysterectomy would need to be performed instead of a vaginal hysterectomy?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which technique of tubal ligation is the most reliable way to ensure the tubes are ligated?
(Multiple Choice)
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Use of a fetal monitor is recommended in surgical procedures after 16 weeks gestation.
(True/False)
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What type of procedure is performed after a diagnosis of missed or incomplete spontaneous abortion?
(Multiple Choice)
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What type of incision is used in cases where the fetus is in transverse presentation?
(Multiple Choice)
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What diagnostic test involves staining cervical squamous epithelium with iodine-based Lugol's solution?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which is a method used to drain and evacuate a Bartholin cyst?
(Multiple Choice)
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When caring for pregnant patients in the OR environment,it is essential to keep the temperature below 60° F to prevent premature contractions.
(True/False)
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