A 42-Year-Old Man Comes to the Hospital for Sharp Right-Sided

A 42-year-old man comes to the hospital for sharp right-sided flank pain that radiates started two hours ago. The pain is also colicky and radiates to the right groin. The patient has no nausea or vomiting. He has a history of crohn disease for which he takes his medications regularly. Urinalysis shows hematuria.  A day later, the patient passes a urinary stone.  Abdominal imaging reveals several additional kidney stones.  Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's kidney stones?

A) Defective amino acid transport
B) Increased bone resorption
C) Rapid cell turnover
D) Reduced intestinal calcium oxalate formation
E) Urinary tract

Correct Answer:

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