A 34-Year-Old Man Comes to the Physician Because of a Left

A 34-year-old man comes to the physician because of a left testicular swelling. He has no pain. He appears healthy. His vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows an enlarged, nontender left testicle. A scrotal ultrasound reveals a suspicious, partially necrotic mass.  Serum lactate dehydrogenase and alpha-fetoprotein levels are markedly elevated.  The patient undergoes a left radical inguinal orchiectomy.  Which of the following is the most likely histologic diagnosis?

A) Leydig cell tumor
B) Nonseminomatous germ cell tumor
C) Sertoli cell tumor
D) Teratoma
E) Testicular lymphoma

Correct Answer:

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