A 38-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office Due to a 2-Month

A 38-year-old man comes to the office due to a 2-month history of an enlarging, localized swelling on the left foot.  Tying his shoelaces too tight leads to localized pain and numbness in the third and fourth toes.  Examination shows a firm, nontender, well-circumscribed lesion on the dorsum of the foot as shown in the exhibit.  The lesion transilluminates when a penlight is applied to it.  Without treatment, which of the following is most likely to occur in this patient?

A) Bloodstream infection
B) Continued crystal aggregation
C) Foot paralysis
D) Malignant proliferation
E) Spontaneous resolution

Correct Answer:

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