Question 1

While administrating the Veritas Volume Manager for Veritas Storage Foundation, you have accidentally destroyed the disk group. You now need to recover the destroyed disk group. You are sure that disk group have not been modified or reused before recovering the disk group. What step do you need to perform to recover the destroyed disk groups?

Accepted Answer

A)  Use the vxdg import command to import the disk group with the disk group id. 
B)  Use vxdarestore command to restore the disk group. 
C)  Use vxrecover disk group command to recover the disk group. 
D)  Use vxconfigrstore to recover the disk group.

Question 2

An organization needs to determine whether at least 50% of a sensitive document is being sent outside the organization. Which action should the company take to accomplish this?

Accepted Answer

A)  use a whitelisted.txt document 
B)  use match on selected fields 
C)  use match count 
D)  use minimum document exposure

Question 3

While you are working on Storage Foundation for DB2, you want to convert the DB2 containers by executing the qio_convertdbfiles -u command. What will be the outcome of the command?

Accepted Answer

A)  It converts regular files to Quick I/O files. 
B)  It changes the Quick I/O files back to regular files. 
C)  It reports the concurrent fragmentation levels for database files listed in the mkqui.dat file. 
D)  It reports the defragment level for the Quick I/O files.

Question 4

Which final steps should an Incident Responder take before using ATP to rejoin a remediated endpoint to the network, according to Symantec best practices?

Accepted Answer

A)  Run an additional antivirus scan with the latest definitions. If the scan comes back as clean, rejoin the computer to the production network. 
B)  Run Windows Update to patch the system with the latest service pack. Once the system is up-to-date, rejoin the computer to the production network. 
C)  Use SymDiag to run a Threat Scan Analysis on the machine. Once the analysis comes back as clean, rejoin the computer to the production network. 
D)  Upgrade the client to the latest version of SEP. Once the client is upgraded, rejoin the computer to the production network.

Question 5

Which stage of an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) attack does social engineering occur?

Accepted Answer

A)  Capture 
B)  Incursion 
C)  Discovery 
D)  Exfiltration

Question 6

With what Service and Asset Management configuration item must an asset be associated to accurately assess its value?

Accepted Answer

A)  Cost Center 
B)  Accounting Code 
C)  Depreciation Schedule 
D)  Owner

Question 7

What is the role of Synapse within the Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) solution?

Accepted Answer

A)  Reputation-based security 
B)  Event correlation 
C)  Network detection component 
D)  Detonation/sandbox

Question 8

You want to preserve data on existing slices on the disk and want to put this disk under Volume Manager control without loosing any data. How will you preserve the data?

Accepted Answer

A)  By encapsulating the disk 
B)  By initializing 
C)  By saving the data on the disk 
D)  By exporting data to another disk

Question 9

Which option should be used to optimize the performance of a network share Discover scan?

Accepted Answer

A)  ensure that the target file system is defragmented regularly 
B)  use an incremental scan to only include previously unscanned items 
C)  configure credential prefetching to reduce delay in authentication 
D)  disable antivirus scanning for network shares on the detection server

Question 10

An administrator needs to deploy a Symantec Data Loss Prevention solution that will monitor network traffic. Which traffic type is excluded from inspection when using the default configuration?

Accepted Answer

A)  HTTP-get 
B)  NNTP 
C)  FTP-put 
D)  HTTP-post

Question 11

How can an administrator achieve greater efficiency and consistency when deploying multiple Managed Software Delivery policies to endpoints?

Accepted Answer

A)  Configure and run the Software Portal Settings policy to update existing Managed Software Delivery policies with default settings 
B)  Configure the Software Catalog Item task to specify standardized settings for newly created Managed Software Delivery policies 
C)  Update the Managed Delivery Settings policy to define standard default settings for new Managed Delivery policies 
D)  Enable the Software Product Recalculation Schedule task to update existing Managed Software Delivery policies with predefined settings

Question 12

You are administering the Storage Foundation 5.0 environment in your organization. Some of the volumes are showing sluggish performance. Tuning the file change using vxtunefs can correct the problem. What are File Change Log tunable parameters for vxtunefs? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.)(Select two.)

Accepted Answer

A)  fcl_keeptime 
B)  fcl_minalloc 
C)  fcl_winterval 
D)  set 
E)  clear

Question 13

Which stage of an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) attack do attackers break into an organization's network to deliver targeted malware?

Accepted Answer

A)  Incursion 
B)  Discovery 
C)  Capture 
D)  Exfiltration

Question 14

An incident responder needs to change the status of an incident to 'Escalate and Notify'. Which two places in the user interface can this Smart Response rule be invoked?  (Select two.)

Accepted Answer

A)  Policy page 
B)  Incident List 
C)  Incident Snapshot 
D)  Incident Summary 
E)  Response Rules page

Question 15

Which Email Security.cloud scanning technology is able to be modified by a customer?

Accepted Answer

A)  Traffic Shaping 
B)  Anti-Spam 
C)  SMTP Heuristics 
D)  Anti-Malware

Question 16

Which two (2) plug-ins are used by Inventory Solution to gather and monitor application-related data? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

A)  Application Metering Agent plug-in 
B)  Software Update Agent plug-in 
C)  Inventory Agent plug-in 
D)  Inventory Rule Agent plug-in 
E)  Software Management Solution Agent plug-in

Question 17

Which three are the database agents that are supported by Storage Foundation High Availability version? (Select three.)

Accepted Answer

A)  Informix 
B)  DB/2 
C)  Ingress 
D)  Oracle 
E)  Sybase
F) SQL

Question 18

What is the minimum amount of RAM required for a virtual deployment of the ATP Manager in a production environment?

Accepted Answer

A)  48 GB 
B)  64 GB 
C)  16 GB 
D)  32GB

Question 19

An Incident Responder wants to create a timeline for a recent incident using Syslog in addition to ATP for the After Actions Report. What are two reasons the responder should analyze the information using Syslog? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

A)  To have less raw data to analyze 
B)  To evaluate the data, including information from other systems 
C)  To access expanded historical data 
D)  To determine what policy settings to modify in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) 
E)  To determine the best cleanup method

Question 20

On your Storage Foundation 5.0 server, a mirror volume is no longer needed. You need to disassociate and remove a mirror named, vol01-02 from the disk group so that you can free up disk space. How will you accomplish this?

Accepted Answer

A)  Use the vxassist command with the remove mirror option. 
B)  Use the vxedit command with the rm vol01-02 option. 
C)  Use the vxplex command with the rm dis vol01-02 option. 
D)  Use the vxplex command with the dis vol01-02 option.

Exam 5: Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 Technical Assessment (Broadcom)