A 72-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Office Due to Persistent

A 72-year-old woman comes to the office due to persistent headaches, fatigue, and muscle pain.  She has a history of hypertension and osteoarthritis.  The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.  Her father had a subarachnoid hemorrhage from a ruptured berry aneurysm.  She is treated with prednisone, leading to marked and rapid improvement in her symptoms.  Which of the following pathologic processes is most likely responsible for this patient's condition?

A) Granulomatous inflammation of the media
B) Homogenous acellular thickening of arteriolar walls
C) Medial band-like calcifications
D) Onion-like concentric thickening of arteriolar walls
E) Transmural inflammation with fibrinoid necrosis

Correct Answer:

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