A 66-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office Due to 2

A 66-year-old man comes to the office due to 2 episodes of hematuria over the past month.  Digital rectal examination reveals an indurated prostate with no palpable nodules.  An image from a transrectal prostate biopsy is shown in the exhibit. 
Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?

A) Acute bacterial infection of the prostate
B) Benign hyperplasia of the prostatic stroma
C) Chronic bacterial inflammation of the prostate
D) Invasive carcinoma arising from the urethra
E) Neoplastic proliferation of prostate gland cells

Correct Answer:

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