A 45-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office Due to Recurrent

A 45-year-old man comes to the office due to recurrent, painful skin lesions in the right axilla for the past 6 months.  The patient has no other medical history and takes no medication.  He smokes a pack of cigarettes every day and works as a roofer.  Vital signs are normal.  Examination reveals tender, subcutaneous nodules in the right axilla and other findings as shown in the exhibit. 
The remainder of the examination is normal.  Which of the following is the most likely cause of the condition?

A) Bacterial proliferation in eccrine sweat glands
B) Immune response to Cutibacterium acnes
C) Malignant transformation of epithelial cells
D) Obstruction of folliculopilosebaceous units

Correct Answer:

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