Multiple Choice
After an unsuccessful trial with fluphenazine (Prolixin) , a patient's medication was changed to trifluoperazine (Stelazine) . Three months later the patient is still hallucinating and delusional. What is the most likely explanation for the persistent symptoms?
A) Trifluoperazine (Stelazine) is a low-potency antipsychotic, and the patient might need higher doses.
B) The patient has not taken trifluoperazine (Stelazine) long enough to decrease symptoms significantly.
C) Delusions and hallucinations are negative symptoms of schizophrenia that do not respond to traditional antipsychotic medications.
D) Both fluphenazine (Prolixin) and trifluoperazine (Stelazine) are traditional antipsychotics, and the patient does not respond well to this class of drug.
Correct Answer:

Verified
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q18: Thioridazine (Mellaril) is prescribed for a 72-year-old
Q19: A patient who takes haloperidol (Haldol) 10
Q20: A patient who takes a traditional antipsychotic
Q21: When a patient is taking a traditional
Q22: An adult diagnosed with schizophrenia was started
Q23: During a psychiatric emergency, a patient is
Q24: A patient who takes a traditional antipsychotic
Q25: A nurse reviews laboratory reports for a
Q26: The patient receiving antipsychotic medication who should
Q27: When assessing for a positive outcome to