Exam 12: Operating Exposure

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Expected changes in foreign exchange rates should already be factored into anticipated operating results by management and investors.

(True/False)
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Recently the British Pound suffered an unexpected depreciation in value. Which of the following actions being considered by Coventry Furniture of London, a purely domestic furniture manufacturer and retailer, would be considered a highly unlikely response to the depreciation of the pound?

(Multiple Choice)
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Another name for operating exposure is ________ exposure.

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Management must be able to predict disequilibria in international markets to take advantage of diversification strategies.

(True/False)
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An MNE has a contract for a relatively predictable long-term inflow of Japanese yen that the firm chooses to hedge by paying for imports from Canada in Japanese yen. This hedging strategy is known as:

(Multiple Choice)
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A British firm has a subsidiary in the U.S., and a U.S. firm, known to the British firm, has a subsidiary in Britain. Define and then provide an example for each of the following management techniques for reducing the firm's operating cash flows. The following are techniques to consider: a)matching currency cash flows b)risk-sharing agreements c)back-to-back or parallel loans

(Essay)
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A Canadian firm with a U.S. subsidiary and a U.S. firm with a Canadian subsidiary agree to a parallel loan agreement. In such an agreement, the Canadian firm is making a/an ________ loan to the ________ subsidiary while effectively financing the ________ subsidiary.

(Multiple Choice)
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The particular strategy of trying to offset stable inflows of cash from one country with outflows of cash in the same currency is known as:

(Multiple Choice)
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A ________ occurs when two business firms in separate countries arrange to borrow each other's currency for a specified period of time.

(Multiple Choice)
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________ cash flows arise from intracompany and intercompany receivables and payments, while ________ cash flows are payments for the use of loans and equity.

(Multiple Choice)
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A ________ is the term used to describe a foreign currency agreement between two parties to exchange a given amount of one currency for another, and after a period of time, to give back the original amounts.

(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is NOT identified by your authors as a proactive management technique to reduce exposure to foreign exchange risk?

(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is NOT an important impediment to widespread use of parallel loans?

(Multiple Choice)
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A ________ resembles a back-to-back loan except that it does not appear on a firm's balance sheet.

(Multiple Choice)
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The empirical evidence strongly supports the proposition that contractual hedges can effectively eliminate operating exposure.

(True/False)
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When disequilibria in international markets occur, management can take advantage by:

(Multiple Choice)
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An MNE has a contract for a relatively predictable long-term inflow of Japanese yen that the firm chooses to hedge by seeking out potential suppliers in Japan. This hedging strategy is referred to as:

(Multiple Choice)
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________ exposure is far more important for the long-run health of a business than changes caused by ________ or ________ exposure.

(Multiple Choice)
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After being introduced in the 1980s, currency swaps have remained a relatively insignificant financial derivative instrument.

(True/False)
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Swap agreements are treated as line items on the balance sheet via U.S. accounting methods.

(True/False)
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