Exam 26: Securitization

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Mortgage-backed bonds are a form of on-balance-sheet securitization.

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These bonds have some prepayment protection and expected durations of five to seven years depending on the level of interest rates and are primarily purchased by pension funds and life insurance companies.

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Investors in a Structured Investment Vehicle (SIV) have no direct right to the cash flows on the underlying portfolio of the SIV.

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Servicing a pass-through security refers to

(Multiple Choice)
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Which is the oldest mortgage-backed security sponsoring agency?

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One hundred identical mortgages are pooled together into a pass-through security. Each mortgage has a $150,000 principal, a fixed annual interest rate of 8 percent (paid monthly), and is fully amortized over a term of 30 years. -If the entire mortgage pool is repaid after the second month, what is the second month's (liquidating) principal and interest payments?

(Multiple Choice)
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An FI funds a $5 million residential mortgage in 2012 by allocating capital and by issuing demand deposits. The mortgage represents a loan-to-value of 70 percent. The demand deposits have a reserve requirement of 10 percent and a deposit insurance premium of 23 basis points. -What amount of demand deposits are needed to fund the mortgage?

(Multiple Choice)
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At market rates substantially below the mortgage coupon rate of an interest-only (IO) mortgage-backed strip, the prepayment effect will dominate the discount effect resulting in a decrease in the price of the IO strip.

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Identify the residual class of a CMO that gives the owner the right to any remaining collateral in the trust after all other bond classes have been retired plus any reinvestment income earned by the trust.

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The creation and sale of CMOs is based, at least in part, on the ability to segment the market for pass-through security products.

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Overseas bank is pooling 50 similar and fully amortized mortgages into a pass-through security. The face value of each mortgage is $100,000 paying 180 monthly interest and principal payments at a fixed rate of 9 percent per annum. -What is the monthly payment on the mortgage pass-through?

(Multiple Choice)
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Prepayment risk means that realized cash flows on pass-through securities may be more than expected cash flows.

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The discount effect and the prepayment effect are negatively correlated in their impact on the value of a principal-only (PO) mortgage-backed strip security.

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When a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) creates asset-backed securities, the SPV retains ownership of the original assets.

(True/False)
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One hundred identical mortgages are pooled together into a pass-through security. Each mortgage has a $150,000 principal, a fixed annual interest rate of 8 percent (paid monthly), and is fully amortized over a term of 30 years. -What is the present value of the mortgage pass-through if, immediately after origination, interest rates increase to 8.25 percent per annum?

(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following best explains the term burn-out factor?

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What is defined as the sum of the products of the time when principal payments are received and the amount of principal received all divided by total principal outstanding?

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The following information is for a collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO). Tranche A has a face value of $50 million and pays 6 percent annually. Tranche B has a face value of $50 million and pays 8 percent annually. All mortgages have maturities of 30 years. -What are the annual payments promised to Tranche A and Tranche B, respectively, assuming no prepayments and non-amortization?

(Multiple Choice)
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GNMA will sponsor any pool of loans regardless of the size of each individual loan in the pool.

(True/False)
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Mortgage pools that are assumed to prepay at a rate of speed that is more rapid than the PSA model would indicate, are said to prepay at less than 100 percent PSA behavior because the mortgage life and balance will exist for a longer time.

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