Exam 8: Credit Risk I: Individual Loan Risk

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Which of the following is not a factor that may tend to increase loan sales in the future?

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A normal bond values fall with interest rate increases but the following bond often has a negative duration and therefore it is potentially attractive to banks and non-bank FIs seeking to hedge their regular bond and fixed-income portfolios.

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When current mortgage rates fall sufficiently low that the present value savings of refinancing outweigh the cost of prepayment penalties(and other fees and costs), the mortgage holders are said to have a valuable:

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A loan provided by a group of FIs as opposed to a single lender is called:

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The key feature of a loan assignment is that all rights are:

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Banks have been partially responsible for big corporate collapses such as Enron.

(True/False)
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Which of the following is true concerning loans sold without recourse?

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Collateralised mortgage obligation (CMO) is a mortgage-backed bond issued in multiple classes or tranches.

(True/False)
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Loan participations are:

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What are four reasons why an FI may prefer the use of either pass-through securities or CMOs to the use of MBBs?

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When an FI sells a loan without recourse, the credit risk of the loan is completely eliminated.

(True/False)
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The credit rating agency is:

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The ___________ is an accrual class of a CMO that makes a payment to bondholders only when preceding CMO classes have been retired:

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Collateralised debt obligations:

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Loan participations are typically sold to correspondent banks because:

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Which of the following observations is not correct?

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What is NOT true of loan assignments?

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The move toward market value accounting:

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Besides reducing credit risks, an FI has an incentive to sell loans it originates for all of the following reasons except to:

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Which is of the statements below is true?

(Multiple Choice)
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