Exam 1: Obstetrics and Gynecology: Part A

The gold standard in diagnosing ectopic pregnancy

The risk for development of fetal macrosomia is increased in the following, EXCEPT:

Prenatal diagnosis at 16 weeks of pregnancy can be performed using all of the following, except:

Factors favoring long anterior rotation include all except

Perforation tends to occur earliest when an ectopic pregnancy is located in which portion of fallopian tube ?

What is the most common side effect with MTX therapy for ectopic pregnancy

All following are indications for CS in OP except

Which vitamin deficiency is most commonly seen in a pregnant mother who is on phenytoin therapy for epilepsy?

The passage of decidual cast in cases of ectopic pregnancy usually means :

A primigravida presents to casualty at 32 weeks gestation with acute pain abdomen for 2 hours, vaginal bleeding and decreased fetal movements. She should be managed by;

A 31-year-old, HIV-positive woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 32-weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. Her prenatal course is significant for the fact that she has taken zidovudine throughout the pregnancy. Otherwise, her prenatal course has been unremarkable. She has no history of mental illness. She states that she has been weighing the benefits and risks of cesarean delivery in preventing transmission of the virus to her baby. After much deliberation, she has decided that she does not want a cesarean delivery and would like to attempt a vaginal delivery. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Invasive molar tissue is most commonly found in

Exposure of female fetus to androgens may arrest differentiation of :

Placenta previa, all true except :

Which is the least frequent site of an ectopic pregnancy?

A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 42 weeks' gestation comes the labor and delivery ward for induction of labor. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. Examination shows her cervix to be long, thick, closed, and posterior. The fetal heart rate is in the 140s and reactive. The fetus is vertex on ultrasound. Prostaglandin (PGE2) gel is placed intravaginally. One hour later, the patient begins having contractions lasting longer than 2 minutes. The fetal heart rate falls to the 70s. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Most important cause of immediate post partum hemorrhage:

Shock is out of proportion to the amount of bleeding in :

Complications of the third stage of labor include all of the following except :

A 34wk GA lady presented with vaginal bleeding of an amount more of that of her normal cycle. O/E uterine contracts every 4 min, bulged membrane, the cervix is 3 cm dilated, fetus is in a high transverse lie and the placenta is on the posterior fundus. US showed translucency behind the placenta and the CTG (Cardiotocography) showed FHR of 170, the best line of management is: