Question 1

Which of the following are causes of orthostatic hypotension?

Accepted Answer

A) Asthma, Addison's disease, alpha blockers 
B) Pulmonary edema, COPD, antihistaminics 
C) Anxiety, vasculitis, beta agonist 
D) Diuretics, pregnancy, burns, excessive heat exposure 
A) Asthma, Addison's disease, alpha blockers 
B) Pulmonary edema, COPD, antihistaminics 
C) Anxiety, vasculitis, beta agonist 
D) Diuretics, pregnancy, burns, excessive heat exposure D

Question 2

The nurse is assessing a patient suspected to have myocardial infarction. Which of the following questions is a priority?

Accepted Answer

A) Are you undergoing a lot of stress lately? 
B) When did these symptoms start? 
C) Did you take any medications recently? 
D) All of the above 
A) Are you undergoing a lot of stress lately? 
B) When did these symptoms start? 
C) Did you take any medications recently? 
D) All of the above B

Question 3

Which is the most common type of cardiomyopathy?

Accepted Answer

A) Restrictive cardiomyopathy 
B) Dilated cardiomyopathy 
C) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 
D) Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia 
A) Restrictive cardiomyopathy 
B) Dilated cardiomyopathy 
C) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 
D) Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia B

Question 4

A patient is taking Lisinopril 10mg. The nurse knows that the desired effect for this medication would be to?

Accepted Answer

A) Relieve abdominal pain 
B) Decrease heart rate 
C) Decrease blood pressure 
D) Decrease body temperature 
A) Relieve abdominal pain 
B) Decrease heart rate 
C) Decrease blood pressure 
D) Decrease body temperature

Question 5

How many positions have been included in generic pacemaker code?

Accepted Answer

A) 1 
B) 3 
C) 5 
D) 7 
A) 1 
B) 3 
C) 5 
D) 7

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of tetralogy of fallot?

Accepted Answer

A) Large ventricular septal defect 
B) Right ventricular outflow obstruction 
C) Right ventricular hypertrophy 
D) A left to right cardiac shunt 
A) Large ventricular septal defect 
B) Right ventricular outflow obstruction 
C) Right ventricular hypertrophy 
D) A left to right cardiac shunt

Question 7

Calcium channel blockers act by antagonizing the L-type calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle. What are the effects on cardiac muscle?

Accepted Answer

A) Increased cardiac muscle contractility, increased SA pacemaker rate, and increased atrioventricular conduction velocity in cardiac tissue 
B) Increased cardiac muscle contractility, increased SA pacemaker rate, and decreased atrioventricular conduction velocity in cardiac tissue 
C) Reduced cardiac muscle contractility, increased SA pacemaker rate, and increased atrioventricular conduction velocity in cardiac tissue 
D) Reduced cardiac muscle contractility, decreased SA pacemaker rate, and decreased atrioventricular conduction velocity in cardiac tissue 
A) Increased cardiac muscle contractility, increased SA pacemaker rate, and increased atrioventricular conduction velocity in cardiac tissue 
B) Increased cardiac muscle contractility, increased SA pacemaker rate, and decreased atrioventricular conduction velocity in cardiac tissue 
C) Reduced cardiac muscle contractility, increased SA pacemaker rate, and increased atrioventricular conduction velocity in cardiac tissue 
D) Reduced cardiac muscle contractility, decreased SA pacemaker rate, and decreased atrioventricular conduction velocity in cardiac tissue

Question 8

Diagnostic work up for a patient who wants to be screened for presence of valvular heart disease should include which of the following diagnostic tools?

Accepted Answer

A) Electrocardiogram, echocardiography, chest x-ray 
B) Electrocardiogram, stress echocardiography, chest CT 
C) Electrocardiogram, treadmill test, holter monitoring 
D) Electrocardiogram, ambulatory blood pressure monitoring 
A) Electrocardiogram, echocardiography, chest x-ray 
B) Electrocardiogram, stress echocardiography, chest CT 
C) Electrocardiogram, treadmill test, holter monitoring 
D) Electrocardiogram, ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

Question 9

Which of the following surgical corrections do not match correctly with the type of surgery performed to correct the type of aortic stenosis?

Accepted Answer

A) Supravalvular aortic stenosis - myectomy of hypertrophied ventricular septum 
B) Supravalvular aortic stenosis - patch augmentation of ascending aorta 
C) Subaortic stenosis - resection of fibrous membrane 
D) Valvular aortic stenosis - percuateneous balloon valvotomy or valve replacement 
A) Supravalvular aortic stenosis - myectomy of hypertrophied ventricular septum 
B) Supravalvular aortic stenosis - patch augmentation of ascending aorta 
C) Subaortic stenosis - resection of fibrous membrane 
D) Valvular aortic stenosis - percuateneous balloon valvotomy or valve replacement

Question 10

Which of the following surgical corrections is not part of corrective surgery done for Tetralogy of Fallot?

Accepted Answer

A) Pulmonary valvotomy or pericardial patch enlargement of RV outflow tract 
B) RV-PA valved homograft conduit 
C) VSD closure with Dacron patch 
D) Aortic valve repair 
A) Pulmonary valvotomy or pericardial patch enlargement of RV outflow tract 
B) RV-PA valved homograft conduit 
C) VSD closure with Dacron patch 
D) Aortic valve repair

Question 11

When the patient is being monitored for cardiogenic shock with one of the devices like extracorporeal life support, left ventricular assist device, or intraaortic balloon pump, what lab value must be monitored to prevent these devices from becoming clotted?

Accepted Answer

A) Potassium and sodium 
B) Prothrombin time, International Normalized Ratio (INR) 
C) Cardiac markers and Troponin 
D) B-type Natriuretic Peptide 
A) Potassium and sodium 
B) Prothrombin time, International Normalized Ratio (INR) 
C) Cardiac markers and Troponin 
D) B-type Natriuretic Peptide

Question 12

A patient with myocardial infarction on the cardiac telemetry unit suddenly goes into ventricular fibrillation. The advanced cardiac life support team arrives immediately and prepares to defibrillate. Which of the following is correct position for placement of the conductive gel pads?

Accepted Answer

A) Below the left clavicle and right lower sternum 
B) Right of midline below the bottom rib and the left shoulder 
C) The upper and lower halves of the sternum 
D) The right side of the sternum just below the clavicle and left of the precordium 
A) Below the left clavicle and right lower sternum 
B) Right of midline below the bottom rib and the left shoulder 
C) The upper and lower halves of the sternum 
D) The right side of the sternum just below the clavicle and left of the precordium

Question 13

The nurse is recording blood pressure and counting pulse rate of a patient who uses cocaine. What is the expected finding in this patient?

Accepted Answer

A) Hypertension and decreased heart rate 
B) Hypertension and increased heart rate 
C) Hypotension and increased heart rate 
D) Hypotension and decreased heart rate 
A) Hypertension and decreased heart rate 
B) Hypertension and increased heart rate 
C) Hypotension and increased heart rate 
D) Hypotension and decreased heart rate

Question 14

Which of the following terms correctly defines the character of pericardial friction rub?

Accepted Answer

A) Rough rumbling sound 
B) Soft cooing sound 
C) Scratchy sound like velcro 
D) Harsh and husky 
A) Rough rumbling sound 
B) Soft cooing sound 
C) Scratchy sound like velcro 
D) Harsh and husky

Question 15

When ventricular fibrillation occurs in the coronary care unit, the immediate action is to:

Accepted Answer

A) Initiate CPR and administer oxygen 
B) Defibrillate the patient 
C) Cardiovert by giving 1 shock at 360J 
D) Administer Sodium Bicarbonate IV 
A) Initiate CPR and administer oxygen 
B) Defibrillate the patient 
C) Cardiovert by giving 1 shock at 360J 
D) Administer Sodium Bicarbonate IV

Question 16

In rate modulated pacing, pacing of atria and ventricles are based on:

Accepted Answer

A) Intrinsic heart rate 
B) Physiological stress with increased heart rate 
C) Pacing only when demand of body increases during exercise 
D) Keep pacing at a constant rate 
A) Intrinsic heart rate 
B) Physiological stress with increased heart rate 
C) Pacing only when demand of body increases during exercise 
D) Keep pacing at a constant rate

Question 17

A patient presenting with symptoms of shortness of breath on exertion, swelling of abdomen and extremities, decreased appetite, nausea was diagnosed to have congestive heart failure. What should be the goal of treatment in this patient?

Accepted Answer

A) Controlling excess fluid accumulation, improving cardiac function and reducing cardiac workload 
B) Control of symptoms, prevention of disease progression, prevent complications 
C) Control of symptoms, treatment of comorbid condition, modify risk factor 
D) Reducing cardiac workload, lifestyle modification, reduce the risk of arrhythmia 
A) Controlling excess fluid accumulation, improving cardiac function and reducing cardiac workload 
B) Control of symptoms, prevention of disease progression, prevent complications 
C) Control of symptoms, treatment of comorbid condition, modify risk factor 
D) Reducing cardiac workload, lifestyle modification, reduce the risk of arrhythmia

Question 18

Which of the following statements is true about Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?

Accepted Answer

A) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome occurs due to formation of extra circuit inside heart 
B) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is common in elderly patients 
C) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome occurs more commonly in women 
D) Incidence of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is highest in people of age group 60 to70 
A) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome occurs due to formation of extra circuit inside heart 
B) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is common in elderly patients 
C) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome occurs more commonly in women 
D) Incidence of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is highest in people of age group 60 to70

Question 19

Which of the following sentences correctly describes the EKG findings of Wenckebach phenomena?

Accepted Answer

A) No relationship between p-wave and QRS complex 
B) Progressive lengthening of PR interval followed by a p wave without an associated QRS complex 
C) Prolonged PR interval with narrow QRS complex 
D) Prolonged PR interval with wide QRS complex 
A) No relationship between p-wave and QRS complex 
B) Progressive lengthening of PR interval followed by a p wave without an associated QRS complex 
C) Prolonged PR interval with narrow QRS complex 
D) Prolonged PR interval with wide QRS complex

Question 20

An 80-year-old female patient presents with tender painful knee joints. Which of the following pharmacologic agents may be useful in treatment of her condition?

Accepted Answer

A) Corticosteroids, hydroxychloroquine, dicyclomine 
B) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, methotrexate, corticosteroids 
C) Anabolic steroid, colchicines, pethidine 
D) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, aspirin, morphine 
A) Corticosteroids, hydroxychloroquine, dicyclomine 
B) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, methotrexate, corticosteroids 
C) Anabolic steroid, colchicines, pethidine 
D) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, aspirin, morphine

Which of the following are causes of orthostatic hypotension?

The nurse is assessing a patient suspected to have myocardial infarction. Which of the following questions is a priority?

Which is the most common type of cardiomyopathy?

A patient is taking Lisinopril 10mg. The nurse knows that the desired effect for this medication would be to?

How many positions have been included in generic pacemaker code?

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of tetralogy of fallot?

Calcium channel blockers act by antagonizing the L-type calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle. What are the effects on cardiac muscle?

Diagnostic work up for a patient who wants to be screened for presence of valvular heart disease should include which of the following diagnostic tools?

Which of the following surgical corrections do not match correctly with the type of surgery performed to correct the type of aortic stenosis?

Which of the following surgical corrections is not part of corrective surgery done for Tetralogy of Fallot?

When the patient is being monitored for cardiogenic shock with one of the devices like extracorporeal life support, left ventricular assist device, or intraaortic balloon pump, what lab value must be monitored to prevent these devices from becoming clotted?

A patient with myocardial infarction on the cardiac telemetry unit suddenly goes into ventricular fibrillation. The advanced cardiac life support team arrives immediately and prepares to defibrillate. Which of the following is correct position for placement of the conductive gel pads?

The nurse is recording blood pressure and counting pulse rate of a patient who uses cocaine. What is the expected finding in this patient?

Which of the following terms correctly defines the character of pericardial friction rub?

When ventricular fibrillation occurs in the coronary care unit, the immediate action is to:

In rate modulated pacing, pacing of atria and ventricles are based on:

A patient presenting with symptoms of shortness of breath on exertion, swelling of abdomen and extremities, decreased appetite, nausea was diagnosed to have congestive heart failure. What should be the goal of treatment in this patient?

Which of the following statements is true about Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?

Which of the following sentences correctly describes the EKG findings of Wenckebach phenomena?

An 80-year-old female patient presents with tender painful knee joints. Which of the following pharmacologic agents may be useful in treatment of her condition?

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AACN Cardiac Vascular Nursing

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Exam 2: Cardiac

Which of the following are causes of orthostatic hypotension?

The nurse is assessing a patient suspected to have myocardial infarction. Which of the following questions is a priority?

Which is the most common type of cardiomyopathy?

A patient is taking Lisinopril 10mg. The nurse knows that the desired effect for this medication would be to?

How many positions have been included in generic pacemaker code?

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of tetralogy of fallot?

Calcium channel blockers act by antagonizing the L-type calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle. What are the effects on cardiac muscle?

Diagnostic work up for a patient who wants to be screened for presence of valvular heart disease should include which of the following diagnostic tools?

Which of the following surgical corrections do not match correctly with the type of surgery performed to correct the type of aortic stenosis?

Which of the following surgical corrections is not part of corrective surgery done for Tetralogy of Fallot?

When the patient is being monitored for cardiogenic shock with one of the devices like extracorporeal life support, left ventricular assist device, or intraaortic balloon pump, what lab value must be monitored to prevent these devices from becoming clotted?

A patient with myocardial infarction on the cardiac telemetry unit suddenly goes into ventricular fibrillation. The advanced cardiac life support team arrives immediately and prepares to defibrillate. Which of the following is correct position for placement of the conductive gel pads?

The nurse is recording blood pressure and counting pulse rate of a patient who uses cocaine. What is the expected finding in this patient?

Which of the following terms correctly defines the character of pericardial friction rub?

When ventricular fibrillation occurs in the coronary care unit, the immediate action is to:

In rate modulated pacing, pacing of atria and ventricles are based on:

A patient presenting with symptoms of shortness of breath on exertion, swelling of abdomen and extremities, decreased appetite, nausea was diagnosed to have congestive heart failure. What should be the goal of treatment in this patient?

Which of the following statements is true about Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?

Which of the following sentences correctly describes the EKG findings of Wenckebach phenomena?

An 80-year-old female patient presents with tender painful knee joints. Which of the following pharmacologic agents may be useful in treatment of her condition?

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AACN Cardiac Vascular Nursing

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