Question 1

The gallbladder releases:

Accepted Answer

A)  Insulin to reduce glucose levels 
B)  Bile to aid in the dispersion of fats 
C)  Glycogen to increase glucose levels 
D)  None of the above 
A)  Insulin to reduce glucose levels 
B)  Bile to aid in the dispersion of fats 
C)  Glycogen to increase glucose levels 
D)  None of the above B

Question 2

Which of the following is considered to be a type of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

Accepted Answer

A)  GERD 
B)  Ulcerative colitis 
C)  Peptic ulcers 
D)  Constipation 
A)  GERD 
B)  Ulcerative colitis 
C)  Peptic ulcers 
D)  Constipation B

Question 3

Calcium carbonate is the active ingredient in:

Accepted Answer

A)  Gaviscon 
B)  Milk of Magnesia 
C)  Mylanta 
D)  Tums 
A)  Gaviscon 
B)  Milk of Magnesia 
C)  Mylanta 
D)  Tums D

Question 4

Risk factors for GERD include:

Accepted Answer

A)  Obesity 
B)  Smoking 
C)  Pregnancy 
D)  All of the above 
A)  Obesity 
B)  Smoking 
C)  Pregnancy 
D)  All of the above

Question 5

Which of the following agents indicated for constipation may cause a patient to experience flatulence?

Accepted Answer

A)  Bisacodyl 
B)  Docusate 
C)  Methylcellulose 
D)  Senna 
A)  Bisacodyl 
B)  Docusate 
C)  Methylcellulose 
D)  Senna

Question 6

The organs most involved in the absorption of nutrients are:

Accepted Answer

A)  Mouth and salivary glands 
B)  Stomach and small intestines 
C)  Large intestine 
D)  Anus 
A)  Mouth and salivary glands 
B)  Stomach and small intestines 
C)  Large intestine 
D)  Anus

Question 7

Adalimumab (Humira) for the treatment of Crohn disease is a(an):

Accepted Answer

A)  Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-$\alpha$) inhibitor 
B)  Alpha-4 integrin antagonist 
C)  5-Aminosalicylate 
D)  Antispasmodic medication 
A)  Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-$\alpha$) inhibitor 
B)  Alpha-4 integrin antagonist 
C)  5-Aminosalicylate 
D)  Antispasmodic medication

Question 8

Lansoprazole is generic for:

Accepted Answer

A)  Nexium 
B)  Pepcid 
C)  Prevacid 
D)  Zantac 
A)  Nexium 
B)  Pepcid 
C)  Prevacid 
D)  Zantac

Question 9

Which ingredient helps control flatulence?

Accepted Answer

A)  Aluminum hydroxide 
B)  Bismuth subsalicylate 
C)  Psyllium 
D)  Simethicone 
A)  Aluminum hydroxide 
B)  Bismuth subsalicylate 
C)  Psyllium 
D)  Simethicone

Question 10

A patient receiving a prescription of ________ is at a higher risk of experiencing a fracture?

Accepted Answer

A)  cimetidine 
B)  esomeprazole 
C)  infliximab 
D)  mesalamine 
A)  cimetidine 
B)  esomeprazole 
C)  infliximab 
D)  mesalamine

Question 11

Which of the following side effects of Lotronex warrants a boxed warning?

Accepted Answer

A)  Abdominal pain 
B)  Drowsiness 
C)  Headache 
D)  Ischemic colitis 
A)  Abdominal pain 
B)  Drowsiness 
C)  Headache 
D)  Ischemic colitis

Question 12

What is the primary danger of untreated diarrhea?

Accepted Answer

A)  Feeling uncomfortable 
B)  Developing an infection 
C)  Dehydration from fluid and electrolyte loss 
D)  Giving it to someone else 
A)  Feeling uncomfortable 
B)  Developing an infection 
C)  Dehydration from fluid and electrolyte loss 
D)  Giving it to someone else

Question 13

Which of the following medications is classified as an opioid antagonist and is indicated for constipation?

Accepted Answer

A)  Docusate/senna 
B)  Lubiprostone 
C)  Movantik 
D)  Polyethylene glycol 
A)  Docusate/senna 
B)  Lubiprostone 
C)  Movantik 
D)  Polyethylene glycol

Question 14

Which type of laxative can lead to physical dependence?

Accepted Answer

A)  Stool softeners 
B)  Bulk forming 
C)  Hyperosmotic 
D)  Stimulant 
A)  Stool softeners 
B)  Bulk forming 
C)  Hyperosmotic 
D)  Stimulant

Question 15

Auxiliary organs of the digestive system include all except the:

Accepted Answer

A)  Pancreas 
B)  Liver 
C)  Gallbladder 
D)  Appendix 
A)  Pancreas 
B)  Liver 
C)  Gallbladder 
D)  Appendix

Question 16

A patient is being treated for a Helicobacter pylori infection. How should they be treated IF they are not allergic to penicillin and have not previously received a macrolide antibiotic?

Accepted Answer

A)  The patient should receive a 10- to 14-day course consisting of a standard-dose PPI twice daily, clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily and metronidazole 500 mg twice daily. 
B)  The patient should receive a 10- to 14-day course consisting of a standard-dose PPI twice daily, clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily and amoxicillin 1000 mg twice daily. 
C)  The patient should receive a 10- to 14-day course consisting of a standard-dose PPI twice daily, bismuth subsalicylate 525 mg four times daily, metronidazole 250 mg four times daily and tetracycline 500 mg four times daily. 
D)  The patient should receive a 10- to 14-day course consisting of a standard-dose PPI twice daily, bismuth subsalicylate 420 mg four times daily, metronidazole 375 mg four times daily and tetracycline 375 mg four times daily. 
A)  The patient should receive a 10- to 14-day course consisting of a standard-dose PPI twice daily, clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily and metronidazole 500 mg twice daily. 
B)  The patient should receive a 10- to 14-day course consisting of a standard-dose PPI twice daily, clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily and amoxicillin 1000 mg twice daily. 
C)  The patient should receive a 10- to 14-day course consisting of a standard-dose PPI twice daily, bismuth subsalicylate 525 mg four times daily, metronidazole 250 mg four times daily and tetracycline 500 mg four times daily. 
D)  The patient should receive a 10- to 14-day course consisting of a standard-dose PPI twice daily, bismuth subsalicylate 420 mg four times daily, metronidazole 375 mg four times daily and tetracycline 375 mg four times daily.

Question 17

Peristalsis occurs in the:

Accepted Answer

A)  Esophagus alone 
B)  Esophagus and stomach 
C)  Stomach and small intestines 
D)  Esophagus, stomach, and intestines 
A)  Esophagus alone 
B)  Esophagus and stomach 
C)  Stomach and small intestines 
D)  Esophagus, stomach, and intestines

Question 18

The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) can be activated by:

Accepted Answer

A)  Smell, pain, and motion 
B)  Emotions 
C)  Chemotherapeutic agents 
D)  All of the above 
A)  Smell, pain, and motion 
B)  Emotions 
C)  Chemotherapeutic agents 
D)  All of the above

Question 19

Bile is produced by the:

Accepted Answer

A)  Liver 
B)  Pancreas 
C)  Small intestine 
D)  Appendix 
A)  Liver 
B)  Pancreas 
C)  Small intestine 
D)  Appendix

Question 20

Proteins in food are broken down in the GI system to:

Accepted Answer

A)  Glucose 
B)  Fatty acids 
C)  Amino acids 
D)  Nucleic acids 
A)  Glucose 
B)  Fatty acids 
C)  Amino acids 
D)  Nucleic acids

Exam 22: Therapeutic Agents for the Gastrointestinal System

The gallbladder releases:

Which of the following is considered to be a type of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

Calcium carbonate is the active ingredient in:

Risk factors for GERD include:

Which of the following agents indicated for constipation may cause a patient to experience flatulence?

The organs most involved in the absorption of nutrients are:

Adalimumab (Humira) for the treatment of Crohn disease is a(an):

Lansoprazole is generic for:

Which ingredient helps control flatulence?

A patient receiving a prescription of ________ is at a higher risk of experiencing a fracture?

Which of the following side effects of Lotronex warrants a boxed warning?

What is the primary danger of untreated diarrhea?

Which of the following medications is classified as an opioid antagonist and is indicated for constipation?

Which type of laxative can lead to physical dependence?

Auxiliary organs of the digestive system include all except the:

A patient is being treated for a Helicobacter pylori infection. How should they be treated IF they are not allergic to penicillin and have not previously received a macrolide antibiotic?

Peristalsis occurs in the:

The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) can be activated by:

Bile is produced by the:

Proteins in food are broken down in the GI system to:

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