A 45-Year-Old Man Visits the Clinic Because He Has Had

A 45-year-old man visits the clinic because he has had recurring, painful skin lesions in his right axilla for the previous 6 months. The patient has no other medical history and is not currently taking any medications. Every day, he smokes a pack of cigarettes and works as a roofer. Vital indicators are typical. Tender, subcutaneous nodules in the right axilla are discovered during the examination, as seen in the illustration. The remainder of the examination is normal.  Which of the following is the most likely cause of the condition?

A) Bacterial proliferation in eccrine sweat glands
B) Immune response to Cutibacterium acnes
C) Malignant transformation of epithelial cells
D) Obstruction of folliculopilosebaceous units

Correct Answer:

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