A 28-Year-Old Nulliparous Woman Being Evaluated for Infertility Comes to the Office

A 28-year-old nulliparous woman being evaluated for infertility comes to the office due to clear vaginal discharge for the past 2 days.  The patient and her partner have intercourse every other day and have been trying to conceive for the past 7 months.  Menstrual cycles occur every 29 days with 4 days of flow.  Last week, she took penicillin for a sore throat.  The patient has no medical issues and has had no surgeries.  She takes a daily prenatal vitamin.  Pelvic examination shows clear mucus at the cervical os.  Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's discharge?

A) Bacterial vaginosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Cervical mucus plug
D) Chlamydia
E) Ovulation
F) Trichomoniasis

Correct Answer:

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