Multiple Choice
Six weeks after a spontaneous, uncomplicated term vaginal delivery, a 32-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the emergency department due to left breast pain. The patient first noticed pain and redness on her left breast a week ago. She has continued to breast feed her infant from the unaffected breast. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and her only medication is a daily multivitamin. Temperature is 38.3 C (101 F) . Physical examination shows an area of erythema extending from the areola to the lateral edge of the left breast and surrounding a well-circumscribed, 4-cm area of fluctuance. Axillary lymphadenopathy is present. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Breast binding and acetaminophen
B) Core needle and skin punch biopsies
C) Ice packs and use of a supportive bra
D) Needle aspiration and antibiotics
E) Warm compresses and massage
Correct Answer:

Verified
Correct Answer:
Verified
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