Multiple Choice
A 60-year-old man undergoes a laparotomy for intestinal obstruction secondary to postoperative adhesions from a cholecystectomy 2 years ago. His other medical problems include type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, and hypertension. On postoperative day 3, he complains of intense pain around his laparotomy wound. His temperature is 38.3 C (101 F) , blood pressure is 121/76 mm Hg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 16/min. Examination of the wound shows abundant cloudy-gray discharge and dusky, friable subcutaneous tissue. Sensation is decreased at the wound edges. His serum glucose level is 312 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Daily dressing changes and tight glucose control
B) Parenteral antibiotics and negative-pressure wound therapy
C) Parenteral antibiotics and observation
D) Parenteral antibiotics and urgent surgical debridement
E) Topical antibiotics and observation
Correct Answer:

Verified
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q415: A 25-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q416: A 34-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q417: A 55-year-old woman is brought to the
Q418: A 22-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q419: A 56-year-old man is evaluated for fever
Q421: A 34-year-old woman comes to the office
Q422: A 53-year-old man is brought to the
Q423: A 16-year-old boy is brought to the
Q424: A 53-year-old woman is evaluated in the
Q425: A 63-year-old man comes to the emergency