A 38-Year-Old Man Is Evaluated for Bloody Stools, Weight Loss

A 38-year-old man is evaluated for bloody stools, weight loss, and anemia.  The patient's past medical history is unremarkable, and he does not take any medications.  He uses tobacco and drinks alcohol "socially."  The patient's father died of colon cancer at age 40.  His younger sister suffers from endometrial cancer.  Examination is remarkable for minimal right-sided abdominal tenderness without guarding to deep palpation.  Stool is positive for occult blood.  Colonoscopy shows a right-sided ulcerative colon mass.  No polyps are noted.  Biopsy of the mass reveals adenocarcinoma.  A mutation in which of the following genes is most likely responsible for this patient's condition?

A) APC
B) BRCA1
C) MEN1
D) MSH2
E) VHL

Correct Answer:

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