A 28-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office Due to a Bump

A 28-year-old man comes to the office due to a bump on his right testicle.  The patient is otherwise asymptomatic and healthy.  Vital signs are normal.  A solid mass is palpated in the right testicle.  The rest of the examination is unremarkable.  A scrotal ultrasound reveals a suspicious, partially necrotic mass.  Serum lactate dehydrogenase and alpha-fetoprotein levels are markedly elevated.  The patient undergoes a right radical inguinal orchiectomy.  Which of the following is the most likely histologic diagnosis?

A) Leydig cell tumor
B) Nonseminomatous germ cell tumor
C) Sertoli cell tumor
D) Teratoma
E) Testicular lymphoma

Correct Answer:

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