A 46-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office Due to Abdominal

A 46-year-old man comes to the office due to abdominal discomfort and diarrhea.  The symptoms began 6 months ago, and he has now developed significant weight loss.  The patient does not use tobacco or alcohol.  Intestinal biopsy is performed, and a periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stained section is shown in the image below: Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?

A) Chronic bacterial infection
B) Immune-mediated gluten sensitivity
C) Impaired lipoprotein formation
D) Lactase deficiency
E) Viral infection

Correct Answer:

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