A 40-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Office Due to Recurrent

A 40-year-old woman comes to the office due to recurrent episodes of postprandial abdominal pain.  The pain is in the right upper quadrant and is associated with nausea.  The patient has no fever, jaundice, or loss of appetite.  Other medical conditions include obstructive sleep apnea and obesity.  The patient takes no medications.  She has never had any surgeries.  She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.  The patient is afebrile.  Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg.  BMI is 38 kg/m².  Examination shows tenderness in the right upper quadrant.  Abdominal ultrasound demonstrates multiple gallstones.  A gross specimen obtained from laparoscopic cholecystectomy is shown in the image below: Which of the following is the most likely mechanism responsible for gallstone formation in this patient?

A) Altered enterohepatic cycling of bilirubin
B) Decreased bile acid synthesis
C) Delayed gallbladder emptying
D) Increased cholesterol synthesis
E) Increased efflux of bilirubin into bile

Correct Answer:

Verified

Unlock this answer now
Get Access to more Verified Answers free of charge

Access For Free