A 46-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office Due to Right

A 46-year-old man comes to the office due to right shoulder pain.  The pain started 2 months ago after the patient began working at a new warehouse where he frequently moves heavy boxes.  He has been taking over-the-counter analgesics and has continued to work.  Past medical history is not significant.  On physical examination, external rotation of the right shoulder against resistance is painful, but there is no weakness.  MRI reveals near complete tear of the right infraspinatus muscle.  The absence of weakness in this patient is best explained by compensatory hypertrophy of which of the following muscles?

A) Latissimus dorsi
B) Serratus anterior
C) Subscapularis
D) Supraspinatus
E) Teres minor

Correct Answer:

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